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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 02:46

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

How should you handle a situation where your friend tells you they like someone who also likes you? Should you tell them or continue as normal?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why do some women alter their faces by so-called cosmetic surgeries (on their eyes, cheeks, lips, chin, jaw) that making them look like Donald Duck or puffy aliens, while for most men these unnatural facial changes are ridiculous or even disgusting?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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